Last updated on Jun 23, 2026
All Microsoft Azure Administrator certification learning material, study guide, training courses are created by a team of Microsoft training experts. The Study Guide and .EXM training software files contain relevant Microsoft Azure Administrator content, labs, practice questions and explanation. This AZ-104 exam guide and training courses is based on the latest exam outlines available!
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As a student looking to advance your career in the field of cloud computing and demonstrate your proficiency in Microsoft Azure administration, taking the Microsoft AZ-104 exam is a crucial step. This article will guide you through the process of preparing for and successfully passing the AZ-104 exam, providing you with accurate and up-to-date information from the Microsoft website.
The AZ-104 exam, also known as "Microsoft Azure Administrator," is designed to assess your skills and knowledge in various aspects of Azure administration. It validates your ability to manage Azure identities and governance, implement and manage storage, deploy and manage virtual machines, configure and manage virtual networks, and monitor and back up Azure resources.
The AZ-104 exam evaluates your proficiency in the following areas:
To increase your chances of passing the AZ-104 exam, it is crucial to have a structured study plan and access to relevant learning resources. Here are some actionable tips to help you prepare:
On the day of the AZ-104 exam, keep the following tips in mind:
By following these tips and investing time and effort in your preparation, you can enhance your chances of passing the AZ-104 exam and establishing yourself as a skilled Azure administrator. Good luck!
Cannot open my exm file
Question 8: Answer: No. The solution does not meet the goal. Why: - For an Azure Internal Load Balancer (ILB) used as a listener for a SQL Server Always On availability group, the health probe must be a TCP probe on the port used by the AG listener (default is port 1433, or the port you configured). - An HTTP health probe cannot reliably validate SQL Server endpoints, so it won’t correctly reflect the health of the AG listener. What to configure instead: - Create an ILB with a backend pool that includes the VMs hosting the AG replicas. - Create a TCP health probe on port 1433 (or the actual listener port). - Create a load-balancing rule for the AG listener port to route to the backend pool. Key concept: ILB health probes must align with the service being load-balanced. SQL Server endpoints require TCP checks, not HTTP checks.
Question 8:
Question 108: Correct answer: A Why: A flat internal cloud network means all hosts can reach each other and any public-facing storage may be exposed. Implementing segmentation with ACLs restricts which networks/hosts can access sensitive file storage, reducing exposure and limiting blast radius. Why not the others: - B (logging/monitoring to SIEM) helps detect issues but doesn’t prevent exposure caused by a flat network. - C (MFA for cloud storage) improves authentication but doesn't address insecure network access to storage. - D (IDS) detects threats after they occur and doesn’t restrict access to the sensitive locations.
Question 108:
Question 82:I can’t view the [Image] in Log entries. If you paste the text of Log entry 1–4 or describe the payloads, I can identify which shows the exploitation. In general, for a zero-day command injection, look for: Log entries showing input that appears to be passed to a shell or OS command (e.g., attempts to execute ls, whoami, uname -a, or wget/curl from a web input). Use of command metacharacters in user input (e.g., ;, &, |, $(), ${...}, backticks). HTTP requests with suspicious query strings or POST bodies that include shell-like commands or encoded payloads. Unexpected process creation or web server issuing OS commands (e.g., new /bin/sh or cmd.exe spawned). How to decide which is evidence: Compare entries for evidence of command execution originating from user input. Check for anomalies that shouldn’t be possible from normal traffic (rare file writes, new executables, or outbound connections triggered by web input). Correlate with timing and any known vulnerability active window. If you share the actual logs, I’ll pinpoint which one indicates exploitation and explain why.
Question 82:I can’t view the [Image] in Log entries. If you paste the text of Log entry 1–4 or describe the payloads, I can identify which shows the exploitation. In general, for a zero-day command injection, look for:
ls
whoami
uname -a
wget/curl
;
&
|
$()
${...}
/bin/sh
cmd.exe
Question 12:Correct answer: D. Exploitation In the Cyber Kill Chain, the stages are: - Reconnaissance: gather information - Weaponization: prepare the exploit - Delivery: transmit the payload - Exploitation: exploit the vulnerability to gain access In this scenario, the attacker gained access to the internal network via social engineering. Since they have already turned the vector into access, they are at the Exploitation stage. Why not the others: - Reconnaissance: before attack, not after access is gained - Weaponization: preparation work done before delivery - Delivery: sending the payload, which would precede how access is gained Note: "Doesn’t want to lose access" points toward persistence actions, but among the given options, Exploitation best fits the current stage.
Question 12:Correct answer: D. Exploitation
Question 3: Answer: C: Configure an Access-Control-Allow-Origin header to authorized domains. Why: The output likely indicates a CORS misconfiguration. CORS controls which origins can make cross-origin requests to your web app. By setting Access-Control-Allow-Origin to specific, trusted domains, you prevent unauthorized sites from reading or interacting with your resources. Why the other options are less appropriate: Set an HttpOnly flag to force communication by HTTPS: HttpOnly affects cookie ??????? via client-side scripts, not transport security. HTTPS enforcement is done with TLS, not HttpOnly. Block requests without an X-Frame-Options header: X-Frame-Options mitigates clickjacking, not cross-origin data access. Disable the cross-origin resource sharing header: This would remove restrictions and increase exposure; you should restrict origins, not disable CORS.
Question 3:
Access-Control-Allow-Origin
UTM STANDS FORUnified Threat Management. It’s an integrated security appliance that combines multiple controls (e.g., firewall, IDS/IPS, antivirus/malware scanning, VPN, content filtering) to protect the network perimeter.
Question 332: The correct answer is: B. Reimage the end user's machine. Why: The SOC has a live indication of a potential compromise (remote control, credential-like data). In incident response, containment/eradication takes precedence to stop malware persistence and possible exfiltration. Reimaging quickly cleans the host so you’re not just “mitigating” by changing credentials. About the assumption: It isn’t that the compromise is fully confirmed or all evidence is already collected. The scenario describes suspicious activity that warrants immediate containment to reduce risk. Evidence collection can occur after containment. Why not the others: - A: Advising password changes is remediation for credential theft, but not the immediate containment needed if the host is compromised. - C: Checking the personal email policy addresses policy, not incident containment. - D: Checking host firewall logs is diagnostic and not the first action when a suspected remote-control compromise is identified. Practical nuance: If feasible, you might quickly gather volatile data (RAM, running processes) before reimage, but the exam’s best-practice choice prioritizes containment/eradication first.
Question 332:
Question 382: Correct answer: C — Inability of a plan subscriber to locate and access fee information for nearby participating service providers. Why: The stated capabilities focus on helping subscribers find providers in their vicinity (real-time maps/GPS, search by postal code or radius) and, critically, enable downloading the fee schedule for those providers. Requirements 7–11 directly support locating providers and retrieving their fee information. While directions (B) are useful, the primary business need driven by the enhancements is to locate nearby providers and access their fee information (C). Options A and D refer to provider-to-provider alerts or provider awareness of subscribers, which are not the primary goals of these enhancements. Note: The problem statement’s official answer in this page shows D, which does not align with the described capabilities. The explanation above aligns the needs with the subscriber-centered benefits.
Question 382:
Question 116: Correct answer: IPSec Why: IPSec provides security at the IP layer by authenticating and encrypting each IP packet in transit, giving confidentiality, integrity, and authenticity for data moving within the private cloud (e.g., site-to-site or host-to-host VPNs). Why not the others: - SHA-1: a hashing algorithm, not encryption; does not protect confidentiality and is insecure. - RSA: an asymmetric algorithm used for key exchange or signatures, not by itself to secure all traffic. - TGT: a Kerberos authentication artifact, not a method for protecting data in transit.
Question 116: